Nemo Posted June 22, 2009 Share Posted June 22, 2009 "I don't see how there's any, any, any contradiction between reading the second clause as a... as a personal guarantee and reading the first one as assuring the existence of a militia, not necessarily a State-managed militia because the militia that resisted the British was not State-managed. But why isn't it perfectly plausible, indeed reasonable, to assume that since the framers knew that the way militias were destroyed by tyrants in the past was not by passing a law against militias, but by taking away the people's weapons... that was the way militias were destroyed. The two clauses go together beautifully: Since we need a militia, the right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed." Justice Antonin G. Scalia Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jim Rusert Posted June 22, 2009 Share Posted June 22, 2009 AMEN. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
AR Gunner Posted June 26, 2009 Share Posted June 26, 2009 Very well explained, in a short statement. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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